On 8/30/24 8:55 AM, WM wrote:
> Le 29/08/2024 à 20:51, "Chris M. Thomasson" a écrit :
>> On 8/29/2024 6:27 AM, WM wrote:
>>> Le 29/08/2024 à 01:48, Richard Damon a écrit :
>
>>>> You just can't count them from the "end" that doesn't have an end.
>>>
>>> Why not?
>>
>> Because it does not have an end.
>
> 0 lies below the end. Hence there is an end, even if you cannot see it.
>
> Regards, WM
>
>
No, there does not need to be an "end" for an infinite sequence in that
sequence.
0 is not "below" the end, but IS the end for the unit fractions, as we
can get as close to it as we want with a unit fraction.
A sequence whose end is not in the sequence doesn't have an end in the
sequence.
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